Hi,
I have recently added IHM to my therapies and wanted a bit of advice regarding a potential client. This lady has previously had bowel cancer but has been given the 'all clear'. Not sure how long ago this was but at least a year and possibly much longer.
I told her daughter that I would be happy to treat her mother and she bought her a gift voucher. I wasn't planning on getting GP consent as she is no longer a cancer sufferer, it wasn't a "blood cancer", and unless anything else arises at the consultation then as far as I am aware she has no other contra-indications.
I posted the same question on the FHT forum and I had one reply from "FHT admin" stating that *you should always get GP approval before treating". So now I am questioning weather I should be getting GP approval if a client had a contra-indication in the past but it is now resolved?
I realise we should err on the side of caution but where do we draw the line?
Any thoughts gratfully received.
Thanks
I have recently added IHM to my therapies and wanted a bit of advice regarding a potential client. This lady has previously had bowel cancer but has been given the 'all clear'. Not sure how long ago this was but at least a year and possibly much longer.
I told her daughter that I would be happy to treat her mother and she bought her a gift voucher. I wasn't planning on getting GP consent as she is no longer a cancer sufferer, it wasn't a "blood cancer", and unless anything else arises at the consultation then as far as I am aware she has no other contra-indications.
I posted the same question on the FHT forum and I had one reply from "FHT admin" stating that *you should always get GP approval before treating". So now I am questioning weather I should be getting GP approval if a client had a contra-indication in the past but it is now resolved?
I realise we should err on the side of caution but where do we draw the line?
Any thoughts gratfully received.
Thanks