Was talking to another MT awhile back, the owner of the business started taking 3% of any cc tips due to the charge she incurs from the cc company (a cost-cutting measure). The MT said she was under the impression that owners could not do that under labor laws, all tips belong to the employee in full. I don't know, and I couldn't find anything online regarding it. But she isn't an employee, rather an IC. So does that change things?
Also kind of bites because she can't claim the cc machine leasing fees as a business expense because it's not leased in her name, but in the business she works at. Or can she? I think it's rather unfair because of the tax thing but also because clients intend for that money to go in full to the person who worked on them. At least, that's what my intention is when I tip someone! It's for *them*.
Is this common? It's pretty much just idle curiosity on my part, but it has made me start tipping everywhere in cash!
Also kind of bites because she can't claim the cc machine leasing fees as a business expense because it's not leased in her name, but in the business she works at. Or can she? I think it's rather unfair because of the tax thing but also because clients intend for that money to go in full to the person who worked on them. At least, that's what my intention is when I tip someone! It's for *them*.
Is this common? It's pretty much just idle curiosity on my part, but it has made me start tipping everywhere in cash!